Philosophy, Physics and the Great Kerfuffle
Recently there has been quite a
kerfuffle about a
review by David Albert of Lawrence Krauss’s book A Universe from Nothing in the New York Times. Stung, Krauss
has been on something of a war path directed against “philosophers” generally. Meanwhile I was quite smitten this year with
Why Does the World Exist?, an excellent
little book by the science writer Jim Holt.
Much to my dismay this book was slammed, along with philosophers in
general, in a (to my mind) very
self-indulgent review in the New York Review of Books by the distinguished physicist
Freeman Dyson. That finally spurred
me to get in my own two cents.
I. Origins of the Great Kerfuffle
The initial motivation for the
title, A Universe From Nothing, and
indeed the whole project was essentially polemical: if the physicist can show
how something came from nothing there is no need to postulate God as the
creator. A powerful blow struck for
atheism! That was the idea. That was the (polemical, not scientific)
original mistake, an unfortunate but tempting choice of words that led
Professor Krauss to try, quixotically, to redefine “nothing,” that caused the
kerfuffle. Professor Krauss’s own
reputation is based on his excellent popularizations including The Physics of Star Trek (which I read
with great pleasure) and Quantum Man,
his biography of Richard Feynman, among several other volumes, and on his
enthusiastic participation in the contemporary “New Atheist” movement. He was a close associate of the late essayist
Christopher Hitchens and continues to work with the polemical biologist Richard
Dawkins (both of whom, I want to stress, I admire greatly. I have spent many hours reading both Hitchens
and Dawkins. I was gratified once to be
quoted, although not by Dawkins himself, on Dawkins’ own very large and lively
blog). Dawkins provided Krauss’s book
with an embarrassingly over-the-top jacket blurb: “Even the last remaining
trump card of the theologian, ‘Why is there something rather than nothing?’
shrivels up before your eyes as you read these pages. If On the Origin of Species was biology’s deadliest blow to supernaturalism,
we may come to see A Universe From
Nothing as the equivalent from cosmology. The title means exactly what it
says. And what it says is devastating.”
It is quite misdirected, though, to
direct this anger at philosophers, a mixed bag of people including, probably, a
majority of atheists (like me) with a generous sprinkling of believers and one
of the few contemporary groups of professional academics who continue to
welcome study and debate on issues of faith.
In fact there is a philosophical discussion that is (unlike big bang
cosmogony or evolutionary biology) genuinely subversive of religious and
specifically creationist belief, and that is the logical question about the
apparent contingency of existence. There
are large numbers of people who are committed to the necessary existence of
God. Admittedly, a believer could
acknowledge that there might have been no God (that the existence of God is
contingent), but insist that there is one, but most believers, and certainly
most creationists, take the position that God necessarily exists. If this is true then an argument that subverts
the notion that there is a reason to think that something exists necessarily is
going to be, unlike the empirical arguments of the scientists, genuinely
subversive for believers. In fact the
only arguments that could even possibly support atheism with actual reasons are
logical arguments and not empirical ones.
No one reading this has any reason
to think that something ever “came from” nothing, whatever that means. One could mean at least two things by saying that
something came from nothing: first, one could simply mean that there was once
nothing and then something appeared.
This interpretation does not implicate “nothing” in the appearance of
something. On this interpretation it’s
not precise to say that something came “from” nothing; the absence of anything
merely preceded the appearance of something (I am setting aside here a
technical problem raised by big bang cosmology, whereby space and time as we
experience them are not present in the “singularity”). This interpretation requires that the
appearance of something was uncaused,
since there was nothing to play any causal role in the appearance of
something. Maybe every event doesn’t
have to have a cause (can anybody show that they must?), and maybe we could go
even further and say that the appearance of something is an event that couldn’t have a cause, since nothing
preceded that event that could have played a causal role; different people will
feel more or less comfortable leaving it at that. A perhaps more attractive alternative,
though, is to doubt (as I do) that at any point something came from nothing,
especially since no one reading this has any reason to think that it did. But on either alternative – that the
appearance of something was an uncaused event, or that such an event never
occurred – there is no work for physics to do.
One reason for the interest among
physicists in “something from nothing” is the big bang theory itself. On this theory there was a “singularity”
(very roughly this is a state of matter/energy so dense that it is
immeasurable) about 14 billion years ago and then a rapid expansion and cooling
into the present universe. This sounds a
lot like something from nothing, but it isn’t.
It’s the present something from an anterior something (the
singularity). Moreover some physicists
(including Lawrence Krauss) are interested in “multiverse” theories, theories
that hold that there could be multiple universes. On multiverse theories big bang-type events
could be happening many times. The story
of the big bang, in short, is not the story of the origin of existence. It is the story of the origin of this
particular universe from another state of being that preceded it. When Hawking says that if you give him,
roughly, the force of gravity he can get you the rest of the universe, or
Krauss says that if you give him, roughly, quantum dynamism he can get you the
rest of the universe, that’s impressive but not the same as explaining how
something came from nothing, nor does anyone need to follow the technical
reasoning (or even to read the books) to know that. In fact none of the recent popular physics books
on cosmogony actually even tries to explain how there was nothing and then
there was something. They all begin with
something or other and then try to show (whether successfully or not is
irrelevant) how more something can be got from the initial something. That includes “laws”: it may or may not be
incoherent to say that there could be a “law” (whatever that is) in the absence
of anything else, but the obtaining of a “law,” whatever that is, is not the
same thing as nothing. Physics can only
explain how some state of affairs (such as the presence of the force of
gravity) led to, or relates to, some other state of affairs (such as the
presence of the rest of the universe), and nothing does not qualify as a “state
of affairs,” although that merits some discussion and I’ll get back to that.
I don’t mean to imply that all, or
even most, physicists don’t understand this (and of many of those about whom
one might say “they don’t understand” it would be more accurate to say that
“they’re not interested,” which is, I want to stress, just fine). Steven Weinberg has said, “Why there is
something rather than nothing (is) just the kind of question that we will be
stuck with when we have a final theory (of physics). … We will be left facing
the irreducible mystery because whatever our theory is, no matter how
mathematically consistent and logically consistent the theory is, there will
always be the alternative that, well, perhaps there could have been nothing at
all.” Right, that is the philosophical
issue: the apparent contingency of existence.
Is there any “problem” here?
There is at least one coherent question: do we know that existence is contingent?
This is not a question for physics or, at least, no one reading this can
explain how the method of physics even in principle addresses this question (as
Weinberg, for one, understands).
If this juncture is a parting of
the ways, though, one of the two parties is going to have to take “cosmogony”
with them. My sense is that cosmogony
should go with the physicists. The sense
of the word has changed over the centuries as the sense of the word “universe”
has changed. In ancient times (and
etymologically) “universe” means the totality of everything that exists, what
I’ve been calling “existence” itself, and thus the proper subject of the
philosophical discussion about the contingency of said totality. But nowadays “universe” has a more specific
meaning reflecting the progress of physics in constructing a model of this universe, the one we live in. This is ultimately a question of usage, but
“cosmogony” on most contemporary tongues refers to big bang theory and other
discussions in astrophysics that pertain to the age and origins of this
(specific) universe (which, the physicists and logicians agree, is not
necessarily the only universe there is).
Besides, the philosophical question at hand is not ultimately about the origin of existence (if, as I doubt,
existence ever had an origin), rather it is about whether existence is
contingent or necessary.
II. Is the
contingency of existence logically demonstrable?
The philosophical discussion of the
contingency of existence uses “existence” in a more traditional, generic sense to
refer to anything that exists, what we can just call “existence,” as opposed to
the physicists’ tendency to conflate “existence” with “the universe” (or “the
multiverse”). As mentioned earlier that
discussion need not take it as axiomatic that existence ever had a beginning at
all, or that if existence did have a beginning that event was caused, or that
there was ever any event such that before the event nothing existed and after
the event something existed, because no one reading this has any conceivable
reasons for claiming to know that any of those things are true. No matter how existence, which is not logically
identical to our universe, got started (on the dubious assumption that it ever
did), or even, as it seems more sensible to think, it never got started at all,
one can still ask the question about its contingency. So physics rightly takes “cosmogony” (and I’m
sure it’s in good hands) and the philosophers are left with the question about
the contingency of existence, which is a (very deep and strange) question for
modal logic.
In the “possible worlds” paradigm
of modal logic there is no world where there is nothing. This is because the only coherent definition
of a world is the definition of what exists “in” that world. As the philosopher David Lewis wrote in his
fascinating book On the Plurality of
Worlds, a world is not like the bottle that holds the beer. What would count to distinguish one empty world
from another? (Possible worlds, which
are only logical constructs, do not share with each other the space and time of
some larger encompassing universe.) In
fact if a world just is what exists in that world, then a “world” where nothing
exists is incoherent. The only coherent
idea of the universe is the idea of all of the things that are present in it:
those things just are the universe. If
nothing existed there would be no world (universe), which is not at all the
same thing as an empty world. This is
the corollary to the earlier point that physics can’t explain (and has no need
to explain) how something came from nothing.
Ordinarily we want to somehow
represent to ourselves what we are thinking about (Kant famously argued that
all of our thinking is limited and structured by our ability to represent). In fact this representative function is often
just identical with thinking (it is interesting to consider the example of
physics itself here; reading the autobiographical popularizations of both the
relativity theorist Einstein and the quantum theorist Feynman one gets the
sense that some kind of visualization is nearly synonymous with thought for
both men). In the case of the
contingency of existence what we are tempted to do is to picture, say, a spiral
galaxy against the background of black space, and then – poof! - imagine the galaxy
disappearing, leaving only “void,” in this case a black space in the mind’s eye. But this is a misleading way to represent
nothingness. Any way of representing nothingness is misleading. If nothing existed there would be no universe,
no space, and no void. There wouldn’t be
anything that was empty or devoid of matter/energy. It may or may not be incoherent to say that
existence is contingent (that’s part of the philosophical question), but it is
surely incoherent to say that one could imagine
what nothingness would be like, because it wouldn’t be like anything. It wouldn’t be a state of affairs in a world. Thus it cannot be represented.
Now we can see how thinking about
the apparent contingency of existence gets us into a mind-bending situation,
and how the problem is essentially philosophical: many people, including Steven
Weinberg and myself, share the intuition that existence is contingent. But our formal logical definition of
contingency is “false in some possible world.”
But the absence of anything cannot be thought of as a state of affairs
in a possible world. So we must,
disconcertingly, step outside of our ordinary conception of modality and our
ordinary sense of “contingent.” The
proposition under consideration is: That there exists at least one world is a
contingent fact. It is not necessary
that there be any worlds, including this one.
Put this way the proposition appears to be question-begging: how could
we know that existence is
contingent? Would justifying the belief
that existence is contingent require a demonstration of the necessity of the contingency of
existence?
Rationalists like Rene Descartes
thought that a demonstration of the logical necessity of the truth of a
proposition (as in mathematics) was the only acceptable (indubitable) standard
of justification of a belief.
Notoriously Descartes then ran himself around in circles, arguing, for
example, that we could prove God’s existence by appealing to the evidence of
our reason and that we could trust in our reason by appeal to the goodness of
God. He lacked the magical initial
premises that would bring the necessity of existence along in their train, because
there aren’t any. Even the premise that
God exists is merely regressive: where did God come from? Empiricists like David Hume, on the other
hand, saw “justification” as a matter of demonstrable probability, as in
empirical science, not logical certainty.
Of course empiricists (including physicists) don’t actually bother
(previously-discussed misunderstandings notwithstanding) with trying to prove
that existence is necessary or that it is contingent. That’s just not an empirical question. That’s because the problem empiricism would have with demonstrating that there
must (or needn’t) be something that exists is that there is only one “fact” in
the data set (namely, something exists): no probabilities there. A singular fact can underwrite no empirical
law: “laws,” on the empiricist’s view, are expectations (inductions) about the
future grounded in regularities of past and present experience. Conversely one cannot generate some set of
natural laws (generalizations) that explain (deduce) the necessity or
contingency of existence.
We philosophers find ourselves, for
the thousandth time, foundering in deep water, having been, for the thousandth
time, abandoned a while back by our more sensible scientific brethren. Or more likely it was we who wandered off,
hopefully without forgetting to bring the lotus leaves. Some things never change! But there is more than one way to go from
here. One attractive option is to argue
that the contingency of existence is not a proper object of knowledge: we
neither “know” nor do we “not know” that existence is contingent. The argument is that there are necessary
conditions for the proper use of the verb “to know,” and the contingency of
existence doesn’t meet those conditions.
When I tell you that I know where my car keys are that is informative,
it means something, because I might not have known that: you didn’t know
whether or not I knew until I told you, and now you do, and your knowing may
have practical significance for both of us.
Also I could be mistaken: you could show that even though I believe that
I know where the keys are, in fact I do not know that. When those conditions (when it’s informative
to find out that I know or don’t know and when it’s possible that I could be
mistaken) do not obtain there cannot be any coherent (meaningful) use of that
verb. Basically this is an
instrumentalist theory of meaning. I
think that this argument is persuasive when, for example, someone tries to tell
me that I don’t “know” if the external world exists. The right response is to say that I neither
know nor do I not know (the world of experience is the “ground” of knowing and
not a proper object of knowledge itself): the skeptic is posing a pseudo-problem.
However, although the
Hume/Wittgenstein argument to the effect that global skepticism is a pseudo-problem
is one that I find both persuasive and satisfying, I cannot shake the intuition
that existence is contingent. That is, I
cannot shake the intuition that it is somehow a meaningful statement to say “Existence is contingent.”
III. Here is my (unpublished) letter to the New York Review of Books provoked by Freeman Dyson's review in that publication of Jim Holt's Why Does the World Exist?
III. Here is my (unpublished) letter to the New York Review of Books provoked by Freeman Dyson's review in that publication of Jim Holt's Why Does the World Exist?
Editors New York Review of Books
To the Editors:
Having
immensely enjoyed Jim Holt’s excellent Why
Does the World Exist?, and being an avid reader of all of the writing on physics in NYRB,
including Freeman Dyson’s, I was eager to read Professor Dyson’s review of
Holt’s book in your most recent issue. Indeed
I brought it home from the post office and sat down and read it on the
spot. I am compelled to write partially
in defense of Mr. Holt, and partially because there are some interesting issues
here, but also out of unexpected disappointment.
At
the beginning of the twenty-first-century there is no doubt that physics is the
preeminent science of the past one hundred years and of the foreseeable future,
certainly for the popular culture, and notwithstanding the epochal advances of
biology and chemistry, and the physical sciences in general, during the same
time. Educated lay people around the
world can name many twentieth-century physicists, from Einstein, Bohr and
Schrodinger to Feynman, Hawkins and Weinberg.
Their cultural status is of the highest, their real achievements are
stunning, and their popular writings and biographies are avidly read by
millions. The same cannot be said for
philosophy. Most lay people could not name
more than two or three of the leading philosophers of the past century, and
their ideas are even more obscure than their names. Only a tiny elite of professional
philosophers command high salaries, while the rest labor in tenuous
circumstances, publishing an insular literature that is unknown to the
public. While a physicist today is
synonymous with a powerful intellectual, philosophers are as often as not
regarded as vaguely subversive charlatans, condemned from the right as
lotus-eaters and from the left as obtuse logicians, acknowledged all around as
writers of impenetrable jargon.
Then
why, oh why do physicists have such a raw resentment of philosophers? It goes beyond the usual xenophobic
inter-departmental food fight familiar to every university professor in the
land. On that tedious tribal level it
makes no more sense for the old silverback physicists to snarl at philosophers
than at, say, geologists, or poets. Part
of it can no doubt be explained by the fact that the awkward duty has recently
fallen to the low-status philosophers to explain to the high-status physicists
that no natural scientist can, even in principle, explain how something could
have come from nothing, since natural science by definition must appeal to some
accepted constants to make a case for some causal relationship between existing
entities and circumstances. That’s how
natural scientists, including physicists, develop testable hypotheses that can
be proven or disproven by experiment – something they are fond of throwing up
to philosophers. Nothingness cannot
enter in to such relations. The point is
indisputable, but of course that very fact only enrages the high-status
physicists even more (we’re all most angry when we’re wrong). Then there is the matter of the concept of
“nothing.” Physicists, whose purview is
the actual, existing universe, have no reason to think about the essentially
logical concept of nothing (they sometimes say that it is the philosophers who
do not understand “nothing,” and then go on to explain that nothing is
something - “gravity,” say, or ”quantum perturbations” - after all). There is also no reason to think that
thinking about the concept of nothing could ever have any practical
application. Nor is there any reason, as
to that, to think that something ever came from nothing in the first place. The physicist’s rebuke of the lowly
philosopher for this impertinence is unattractive, but philosophers (many of
whom are adoring physics groupies, by the way) tend not to mind
unattractiveness. It is worse to be
uninteresting, and I’ll venture a further impertinence: m’lord’s wrath on this
point is not of philosophical interest.
Philosophers
have not much better luck, but from the logical point of view the question is
at least interesting. The question is,
“Is existence contingent?” Contemporary
modal logic formalizes modal operators (“necessary,” “contingent,” “possible,”
“impossible,” “probable,” “improbable”) by quantifying over sets of possible
worlds. This sounds fantastic but it is,
among other things, the only way to enable computers, those most literal of
creatures, to handle modality. So in the
case of contingency, the proposition “X is contingent” is analyzed: “X is false
in at least one possible world,” possible worlds being understood as ways the
world could be. But the proposition
“Existence is contingent” cannot be analyzed in this conventional way. To say “There is at least one possible world
where nothing exists” is to posit a possible world, and a possible world is
still something, just as the null set is still a set. So it seems that there is no way to logically model of the contingency of existence. Of course one cannot construct a "possible worlds" model of
the necessity of existence either, for the same reason. Just as traditional skepticism is best appreciated
as pressuring our standards for justifying beliefs, rather than our ordinary
beliefs themselves, so the question about the contingency of existence puts
some interesting pressure on our understanding of modal logic. (Of course different people will have
different intuitions about the contingency of existence. I for one can’t shake it.)
Professor
Dyson has nothing to say about any of this.
In fact he finds nothing to discuss anywhere in Mr. Holt’s delightful
book. He simply uses the occasion as an
opportunity to slam philosophers and philosophy. He claims that he appreciates philosophy as
literature and laments, more in sadness than in anger, that philosophy is not
what it used to be. It’s true that
philosophers used to be polymaths. The
great seventeenth-century rationalists were mathematicians and physicists, and
fourth-century BCE Greeks would have had to be instructed for some time to
understand how a philosopher and a physicist and a psychologist were not all
doing the same thing (if you could ever get them to accept that). But we live in a different time. Few lay people today could name the greatest
contemporary biologists or chemists, or the greatest poets or literary
critics. The role of the individual
thinker has changed in profound ways since the days of Aristotle or of Leibniz. Professor Dyson’s lament is equivalent to
saying that young people don’t have values like people used to do, a complaint
prominent in Plato’s writings.
Jim Holt
interviewed physicists and philosophers, a fact Professor Dyson acknowledges
about halfway through this non-review.
Professor Dyson dispenses with this complication by defining all of the
physicists who spoke to Holt (one chapter is devoted to Steven Weinberg) as
physicists who use physics as “a basis for philosophical speculation,” and then
simply goes on to lump them in as philosophers with the rest. One wouldn’t know from this review that the
book includes more pages dedicated to discussion with physicists and
cosmologists than it does with philosophers. Professor Dyson’s last line is
supposed to be the kicker, the one to make us all stare into our beer: “Modern
departments of philosophy have no place for the mystical.” But
quite a few of both the Dyson-designated “philosophers” (Roger Penrose, David
Deutsch, John Leslie) and the actual philosophers (Richard Swinburne, Derek
Parfit) interviewed here are unabashed mystics.
Professor Dyson’s assertion is merely bizarre, and his qualifications
for making it are none. The only
interesting question he raises is the one I started with: what are philosophers
doing that gets up the noses of physicists so much? They must be doing something right.
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ReplyDeleteThat's a nice piece Andy. You might also just call it an inexorable paradox instead of a pseudo problem. Certainty about the external world existing is perhaps a pseudo problem since there is no other way of thinking without one. But the causal paradox of it all still remains. A bit like the freedom-determinism paradox or the mind and body paradox. To me there are timeless metaphysical puzzles that are simply part of the human condition. It is important to remain agnostic about them instead of denying them by embracing a naive or blithe avoidance of hdlf of the issue
ReplyDeleteNice piece Andy. But I think this is more paradox than pseudo problem. You an LW are right the the existence of the world is a pseudo problem because we cannot imagine it not existing. But the causal problem remains logical modal conventionality be damned. So to me the role of philosophers is more to preserve such paradoxes from the grubby and overeager distorters. On this, mind-body, and freedom-determinism.
ReplyDelete“If the physicist can show how something came from nothing there is no need to postulate God as the creator. Anderson Brown “one of the survival methods of religion is to manipulate the gap that science needs more research. If science has certain limitation to expound a given challenge, religion takes a refuge on that particular subject and try to attach it to creation. How does a subject which is yet unknown left to be for creation because we do know it.Imagine, at one time there was not scientific explanation for what cause thunder, religion said at that time and even now thunder happens to punish Satan in a place where he hide. How unknown subject left to unknown force whatever name given for it? How absurd it is!!!
ReplyDeleteI am not sure if you will find these amusing or not, but they are a funny take on the Socratic Dialogues. I couldn’t find the first few though:
ReplyDeletehttp://voices.yahoo.com/the-lost-dialogues-plato-part-three-12133811.html?cat=2
http://voices.yahoo.com/the-lost-dialogues-plato-part-four-12143660.html?cat=47
http://voices.yahoo.com/the-lost-dialogues-plato-part-five-12144400.html?cat=47
Certainty concerning the external world existing is probably a pseudo downside since there's no alternative manner of thinking while not one
ReplyDelete'If someone claimed that God “came from nothing” (I would be genuinely curious to hear of anyone who ever claimed that)'- surely 'God comes from nothing' is the orthodox Mayavadi Advaita position? At least that was what I was taught in youth. The 'Saguna' God of Theist praxis (Bhaki) arises and immediately dissolves back into Nirguna Bhrahman- which doesn't exist any more than the Illusion (Maya) of anything else having occurred.
ReplyDelete'.. they would have the exact same problem as the physicists do, whether or not they abjured the need for some kind of causal explanation (an option that physicists, by definition, do not have). Neither physical nor “theological” explanations can use the concept of nothingness in any kind of explanation whatever.'
Any kind of explanation whatever? Surely that's a bit strong? What about an instrumental sort of explanation?
Dear Anderson, For the ones who gets lost in the confidence of Logic, that nothing could escape its scrutiny including subjects like 'origin of something from nothing', I politely suggest to patiently go through my published paper, ' Is Reason an internal sense-organ? A super-mind above the known mind ? ' at link: http://www.cirworld.org/journals/index.php/japs.
ReplyDeleteIf any patience still left, then share my e.book also at Amazon.com with the same title, which is a more elaborate account on the theme.
Those who are open enough to share alternative notions and propositions about the possible ultimate stuff of whatever that exists, kindly go through the following blogs too: http://thewhyquestionofexistenceanswered.blogspot.in/
http://patternsofapproachtodiscoverreality.blogspot.in/
http://argumentsagainstscientificpositivism.blogspot.in/
It seems that "nothing" is only an artifact of ratiocination. Certainly "nothing" only exists as a concept--its supposed referent cannot be pointed to (literally and logically) anywhere in our reality. Thus your remark, "There is at least one coherent question: do we know that existence is contingent?" would seem to be answerable by the observation that a set of all things that have nothingness is empty--and necessarily so. Surely, we can say that some things do not exist, the perennial "present king of France" being one; but when we say that, we are not implying that 'nothing' exists. Something else surely still exists even though France doesn't currently have a king... so if "nothing" has no real sense--no referent, logically and literally--how could there be a question about 'it' being the origin of anything, or the alternative to the current state of affairs? As evidence of an improper fit of our conceptual framework with, let's call it "reality," the concept of nothing(ness) serves well though. How so?
ReplyDeleteWe live in a universe filled with contingent things--contingent upon physical interactions and laws, and existence is a fact, and the absence of something, real or imagined, has some sort of sense for us. So how can we use the same concept for that kind of state of affairs and for reality itself? If we call into question whether reality is contingent, it seems to me that we are degrading the concept (and the reality!) tremendously. Shouldn't we also then question if mathematical truths are also contingent, and the truth of logic (and thus all of this wind we are expending) also contingent? If reality is contingent we should all go home and shut up--necessarily, because our speech is (contingently) empty, as is the reality of everything we experience. So, in my thinking "real" and "exists" are two different state of affairs, and there is no overlap between them! That doesn't imply God, nor the absence of God, it just allows me to speak without confusing myself, forcing myself to question the contingency of existence (of course it's contingent!) and the absolute necessity of reality (of course it is necessary!). Using this structure one can talk about a Big Bang theory without calling into question Reality, as if there is an alternative...
My definition of "real" is simply this: what is real is “non-contingent, necessary, simple, and evidenced.” (my arguments were laid out in “An Introduction to Awareness.” https://itun.es/us/MPWzA.l but if you think about them, those four are pretty self-evident)
Note that what is "real" can't be a complex (of parts), without referent (e.g. present king of france), optional, or unnecessary. However, all existing things are no longer conflated with the real. Now we can talk about a Big Bang theory of the universe coming into being, without falling into a trap of thinking we are wrestling with being and nothingness... even though the theory can still be wrong.
The key here is that what is real has to be evidenced. The fact that anything exists at all is evidence of a reality that is necessary and non-contingent (as the goddess said to Parmenides, we can shut-up about it now). On another level, we can even speak of 'nothing at all existing' as being evidence of there being a reality in which that state of affairs holds. Our universe, then, becomes a kind of display of reality, and I see it as being played out on a kind of 'event horizon' between all possibility and the actual—and I don’t mean mentally. The display is structured (or adhering to 'laws'), but that at least allows for mathematics and logic so we can argue if I am correct or not.
James, Nice to hear from someone who has thought a lot about this. Couple of things: 1) I don't think that mathematical propositions are (or could be) contingent the way empirical propositions (all) are. In math/logic strictly speaking we are looking for "validity" which is about the logical/mathematical relations between propositions and not about the empirical "truth" of any or all of them. As you know, validity + truth = soundness. So, insofar as I understand you, I would disagree with your assertion that my claim that existence could be contingent commits me to a parallel claim about mathematical validity. 2) more interestingly (to me anyway) I don't see an argument in your comment for the necessity of reality. First, you state that the "contingency of reality" is a "degrading" idea. a) I see no reason to agree, everything is just as meaningful as ever regardless of contingency so far as I can see and you advance no real reasons for accepting your rather vague worry (if so then "everything is empty"), and b) so what if this supposedly bad consequence did follow? That's not an argument against the possibility, just a reason not to like it. You don't deny doctors' diagnoses when they're bad, do you? Then, you simply aver that (because of what has gone before?) reality is "absolutely necessary," but again nothing you say previously justifies this assertion. As to the distinction between "existence" and "reality," I guess you mean the present state of affairs (reality) and the obtaining of any of all possible states of affairs (existence per se). But if so (and it's hard to see what else those words could mean) then surely it's the present state of affairs (reality) that is incontrovertibly contingent? As to existence per se, I'll stick to my intuition that lacking a decisive reason to believe one or the other, contingency trumps necessity. Oh, and there is no God (since you bring that up). Maybe that's the source of your trouble. If there was a God (please define this term), why would the existence of God not be contingent? I see no self-evident reason for asserting that it would not. Thanks for the comment! Sincerely yours Anderson Brown
DeleteThe question 'Who created God?' has been answered here:
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